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It is ungrammatical to use 'has' in questions that begin with 'do' or 'does' All of the sentences below convey the meaning of compulsion of exercise to be carried out in three months In these types of questions the verb 'do' is conjugated based on whether the noun is first, second or third person (eg do i, do you or , does he)

The 'have' part of the question is not conjugated and appears as the bare infinitive regardless of the person of the noun. What are the differences in meaning between the following sentences I have a question about where to use is and has

Tea is come or tea has come lunch is ready or lunch has ready he is come back or he has come back she is assigned for work or.

Can anyone tell me where we have to use has and where we have to use have Can anyone explain me in a simple way? Could you please tell me the difference between has vs has been 1) the idea has deleted vs.

2) the idea has been deleted what is the difference between these two? So yes, in these cases do becomes does for third person singular because it is finite. I came across many sentences which have has had, had had for example the one that has had the most profound impact is generics i wanted to know what are the basic rule of using those? All sentences seem to be gramatically correct

There may be differences in what they convey and in what circumstances each one would be used

The contest for this question is missing, so it's hard to tell which one is the best Have not been started yet, using persent perfect in passive voice, is useful when you emphasize the present state of things connected to the past (the courses were. She doesn't has a book She doesn't have a book

Why is the first sentence wrong We use 'has' with singular, and 'she' is singular. The subject of have is videos and pictures, which is a compound of two plural nouns The correct verb form is have

It has, and they have.

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